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I don't know if I missed something, or maybe I just don't understand the trade rules, but why were Antonio Davis and Tim Thomas included in the deal? I'm pretty sure they had very comparable contracts and if making the salaries work was the only reason that they were both included in the trade, then why not just keep Davis in Chicago and keep Thomas in New York?
 

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Remember, Paxson thought the Knicks would release Davis and he would re-sign with the Bulls. Paxson assumed he would have both Thomas and Davis.
 

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I actually had this same dilemma, as I was thinking about it the EXACT same way you are (which, no offense, is an admittedly dumb way of thinking about it).

What it ended up being was essentially Eddy Curry for Sweets, Jermaine Jackson (is that his name?), and a 1st. Sweets makes about 3 mil while Jermaine Jackson was pulling in around 1. Eddy, on the other hand, makes something like 8-9 million this season, amounting in over about a 50 percent salary difference relative to Eddy Curry's.

HOWEVER, once you add in 14 million to each side, you have 18 million dollars vs. 23 million dollars in salary. This winds up being a 21% difference in salary. Not only that, but I also believe Eddy Curry did not count the full value of his salary for the year towards the trade for some reason or another, which would make the salary difference within the 15% threshold.
 

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The "for some reason or another" is called Base Year Compensation. It's like this:

http://members.cox.net/lmcoon/salarycap.htm#73

Base year compensation (BYC) prevents another salary cap loophole. Without BYC, a team over the salary cap that wants to trade a player, but can't because of the Traded Player exception (which says teams can't take back more than 125% of the salary they trade away), could just sign the player to a new contract that fits within the desired range, then do the trade. BYC says "if you re-sign a player and give him a big raise, then for a period of time his trade value will be lower than his actual salary."

BYC defines the salary that's used to compare players for compliance under the Traded Player exception (see question number 68 for more information about the Traded Player exception). Usually the salary used for comparison is the player's actual salary. But under either of the following circumstances, a different salary is used when comparing salaries for trading purposes:

* The team is over the salary cap, used the Larry Bird or Early Bird exception to re-sign the player, and the player received a raise greater than 20% (unless it's the minimum salary).
* The team is over the salary cap, it extended the player's rookie scale contract, and the player received a raise greater than 20%.

If either of the above apply, then the player is considered a base year player. A player remains a base year player for six months, or until June 30, whichever comes later. When trading a base year player, the salary used for comparison is the player's previous salary, or 50% of the first-year salary in his new contract, whichever is greater.
 

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Discussion Starter #5
OK thanks that makes sense, I should've seen that.
 

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even with curry's 50% of his salary being 4-4.5mil
sweets with 3.5 and jermiane close to one... why did we need AD and TT in this deal?
Indeed, I'm still confused by this.
Also Eddy's actual salary for this year - $7,920,792
 

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Curry's salary was full ~$8M going one way and ~$4M the other way.
It doesn't work that way.
When trading a base year player, the salary used for comparison is the player's previous salary, or 50% of the first-year salary in his new contract, whichever is greater.
His rookie contract was $3,896,402, which is basically 50% of his first year salary of his new contract ($7,920,792).
So in the trade, his value was just shy of $4M.
*edit* Looking at it now, unless its the provision below, Paxson got screwed.

For Larry Bird or Early Bird players, the player's BYC begins on the date he signs his contract. For extended rookie scale contracts, the player's BYC begins on the day after the July Moratorium which precedes the first season of the extension. For example, if an extension of a rookie scale contract is signed on 10/30/05, his BYC begins on 7/12/06, because the first season of the extension is 2006-07. If a team tries to trade an extended rookie between the date his extension is signed and the date it takes effect, his "trade value" for the receiving team is the average of the salaries in the last year of the scale contract and each year of the extension. This is called the "poison pill provision."
It could be this part of that provision.
 

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New York received Eddy's full salary of $8 million. That is what the trade is based on from their end.

The Bulls could only take back $4 million because of Eddy's BYC status. That is what the trade was based on from our end.

The Knicks had to send out at least $6 million in salary in order to be able to receive $8 million back ($8 mil - 25% = $6 million).

The Bulls sent out $4 million in salary, so they could only take back $5 million ($4 mil + 25% = $5 mil).

What is so hard to understand about that?

(And yes, I left out the $100,000 leeway from the 25% to make the math more simple to understand)
 

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Eek i feel such a dumb ***, no idea why i thought that the $4M was for both teams.
*quickly deletes previous post :p*
 
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